GENERAL AWARENESS
1. Meanders are the features formed by
(1) glaciers
(2) rivers
(3) winds
(4) ocean waters
Solution:2
2. Linseed is obtained from
(1) Castor
(2) Flax
(3) Groundnut
(4) Sesame
Solution:2
3. If 20% or more area of the country suffers from rain deficits during monsoon season, it is termed as
(1) flood year
(2) drought year
(3) famine year
(4) self sufficient year
Solution:2
4. Rajasthan canal receives water from which of the following rivers ?
(1) Yamuna
(2) Jhelum
(3) Ravi
(4) Sutlej
Solution:4
5. Uneven distribution of Insolation on the earth is mainly due to the
(1) spherical shape of the earth
(2) distribution of land and water
(3) direction of the winds
(4) presence of pressure belts
Solution:1
6. The radiation that can penetrate deepest in our body
(1) UV-radiation
(2) Alpha-particles
(3) 13-particles
(4) Gamma-particles
Solution:4
7. Which of the following organism possesses characteristics of a plant and an animal?
(1) Euglena
(2) Mycoplasma
(3) Paramecium
(4) Chlorella
Solution:1
8. Match the following :
(1) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
(2) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
(3) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(4) A-2, B-I, C-4, D-3
Solution:2
9. Tachycardia is a condition characterized by
(1) heart-rate decreases from the normal
(2) heart- rate increases from the normal
(3) heart-beat stops
(4) heart fails to pump
Solution:2
10. Oxyntic cell is meant for the secretion of
(1) Pepsin
(2) Enterokinase
(3) Hydrochloric acid
(4) Lactic acid
Solution:3
11. Sound is heard over longer distances on rainy days because
(1) sound travels slowly in moist air
(2) sound travels faster in moist air
(3) moist air does not absorb sound
(4) moist air absorbs sound
Solution:2
12. X-rays are
(1) positively charged particles
(2) negatively charged particles
(3) neutral particles
(4) None of these
Solution:3
13. Which one of the following is a vestigial organ ?
(1) Eye-brow
(2) Collar-bone
(3) Wisdom-teeth
(4) Nails
Solution:3
14. Railway tracks are banked on curves so that :
(1) the train may not fall down inwards.
(2) the weight of the train may be reduced.
(3) necessary centripetal force may be obtained from the horizontal component of
the normal reaction due to track.
(4) no frictional force may be produced between the wheels and the track.
Solution:3
15. After ‘PROM’ is programmed, we can only _ the information.
(1) read
(2) write
(3) read and write
(4) remove
Solution:1
16. We feel cool when we sit near the fan, this is because
( I ) fan gives cool air.
(2) fan cools surrounding air.
(3) air vapourises the sweat on our body.
(4) we feel cool when air touches the body.
Solution:3
17. Water flows off the wings of biids and insects due- to the presence of
(1) Waxes
(2) Sugars
(3) Proteins
(4) Minerals
Solution:1
18. Which one of the following chemicals is associated with muscle fatigue?
(1) Uric acid
(2) Acetic acid
(3) Pyruvic acid
(4) Lactic acid
Solution:4
19. Which one of the following does not contain silver ?
(1) Horn silver
(2) Ruby silver
(3) German silver
(4) Lunar caustic
Solution:3
20. The average kinetic energy of the molecules of an ideal gas is directly proportional
to
(1) Velocity of Molecules
(2) Mass of Molecules
(3) Absolute temperature of the gas,
(4) Temperature of environment
Solution:3
21. ROM standS for
(1) Real Office Manager
(2) Read Only Memory
(3) Read Only Memorandum
(4) Role On Memory
Solution:2
22. An important green-house gas other than methane being produced from the
agricultural fields is
(1) Nitrous oxide
(2) Ammonia
(3) Sulphur dioxide
(4) Arsine
Solution:1
23. Acid rain is caused due to pollution of atmosphere by
(1) oxides of carbon and nitrogen
(2) oxides of nitrogen and sulphur
(3) oxides of nitrogen and phosphorus
(4) None of these
Solution:2
24. The land which is not cultivated every year though it is suitable for cultivation :
(1) Waste land
(2) Pasture land
(3) Fallow land,
(4) Cultivable waste land
Solution:4
25. Who among the following is the first Indian to swim across English Channel ?
(1) Aarti-Saha
(2) Mihir Sen
(3) P.K. Bannerji
(4) Vikram Merchant
Solution:2
26. Which of the following chemicals is responsible for depletion of ozone layer in the
atmosphere?
(1) Chlorofluorocarbons
(2) Nitrous oxide
(3) Sulphur dioxide
(4) Carbon dioxide
Solution:1
27. Who has authored the book ‘One Life is Not Enough’?
(1) V.S. Naipal
(2) Natwar Singh
(3) K.P.S. Gill
(4) Khushwant Singh
Solution:2
28. In the final of the IPL 2015 T-20 Tournament Mumbai Indians defeated
(1) Kings XI Punjab
(2) Royal Challengers Bangalore
(3) Rajasthan Royals
(4) Chennai Superkings
Solution:4
29. Nobel Peace Prize for 2014 has been awarded to
(1) Malala Yusufzai (Pakistan)
(2) Kailash Satyarthi (India)
(3) Both Malala Yusufzai (Pakistan) and Kailash Satyarthi (India)
(4) Neither Malala Yusufzai (Pakistan) nor Kailash Satyarthi (India)
Solution:3
30. Who was the recipient of the Dada Saheb Phalke Award for 2014?
(1) Shashi Kapoor
(2) Shakti Kapoor
(3) Shashikant Kapoor
(4) Shekhar Kapoor
Solution:1
31. Who among the following was the first European to be selected as President of
Indian National Congress ?
(1) Annie Besant
(2) George Yule
(3) A.O. Hume
(4) Alfred Webb
Solution:2
32. Palk Strait is situated between
(1) India and Pakistan
(2) India and Bangladesh
(3) India and Sri Lanka
(4) India and Myanmar
Solution:3
33. Birmingham in U.K. is famous for
(1) Iron and Steel industry
(2) Sugar industry
(3) Paper industry
(4) Aluminium industry
Solution:1
34. Which city is hosting the 2016 Olympic Games ?
(1) Seoul
(2) Barcelona
(3) Rio-de-Janeiro
(4) Los Angeles
Solution:3
35. Which of the following industries is at Koraput ?
(1) Ship Building
(2) Aircrafts Building
(3) Iron and Steel
(4) Electric Locomotives
Solution:2
36. One of the following expenditure is an example of investment expenditure,
(1) an entrepreneur purchasing a computer for domestic use.
(2) a firm purchasing raw materials for final production.
(3) an entrepreneur buying plane tickets for a family trip,
(4) a firm purchasing computer for smooth maintenance of accounts.
Solution:3
37. Point out the incorrect pair :
(1) Green Revolution – Agricultural Development
(2) White Revolution – Dairy Development
(3) Blue Revolution – Development of Fisheries
(4) Operation Flood – Irrigation Development
Solution:4
38. Steel sheets used in the production of furnitures is an example of
(1) an intermediate good
(2) a final good
(3) an investment good
(4) a consumption good
Solution:1
39. Which of the following is not an economic activity ?
(1) A labourer working in a factory.
(2) A CRPF jawan guarding country’s borders.
(3) A teacher teaching his own son.
(4) A farmer tilling his own land.
Solution:3
40. Which of the following pair s incorrect ?
(1) Comrade – Mohammed Ali
(2) Indian Sociologist – Lala Har Dayal
(3) Young India – Lala Lajpat Rai
(4) Common Weal – Annie Besant
Solution:3
41. Indian economy is an example of a mixed economy because,
(1) urban sector coexists with vast rural sector
(2) traditional subsistence economy coexists with modern economy
(3) private sector coexists with public sector enterprises
(4) monopoly elements coexist with competitive elements
Solution:3
42. Who administers the oath of office to the President?
(1) Chief Justice of India
(2) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(3) Vice-President
(4) Prime Minister
Solution:2
43. The President of India can be removed from his office by the
(1) Chief Justice of India
(2) Parliament
(3) Lok Sabha
(4) Prime Minister
Solution:2
44. With which conspiracy case Aurobindo Ghosh’s name is connected ?
(1) Kakori Conspiracy Case
(2) Lahore Conspiracy Case
(3) Meerut Conspiracy Case
(4) Alipore Conspiracy Case
Solution:4
45. Who among the following are involved with Cauvery River dispute ?
(1) The Central Government and Karnataka
(2) The Central Government and Tamil Nadu
(3)Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(4) Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Puduchery
Solution:3
46. Who was the founder of Swatantra Party ?
(1) B.G.Tilak
(2) Dadabhai Naoroji
(3) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(4) C. Rajagopalachari
Solution:4
47. Arrange in chronological order :
1. Cabinet Mission
2. Cripps Mission
3. Montague-Chelmsford Refoi ins
4. Minto-Marley Reforms
(1) 3, 2, 4, 1
(2) 1, 2, 3, 4
(3) 4, 3, 2, 1
(4) 2, 3, 4, 1
Solution:3
48. The Political Guru of Mahatma Gandhi was
(1) Dadabhai Naoroji
(2) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(3) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(4) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Solution:2
49. Who among the following is known as the ‘Napoleon of India’ ?
(1) Chandragupta
(2) Samudragupta
(3) Harshavardhana
(4) Ashoka
Solution:2
50. One of the following Indus Valley sites is in Pakistan :
(1) Lothal
(2) Kalibangan
(3) Alamgirpur
(4) Harappa
Solution:4
ENGLISH COMPREHENSION
Directions (1-10) : In the following questions, a sentence/ part of the sentence is
printed in bold. Below are given alternatives to the bold sentence/part of the sentence
which may improve the sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no
improvement is needed, your answer is No Improvement.
1. He parts his hair in the centre.
(1) at the’ centre
(2) near the centre
(3) in the middle
(4) No improvement
Solution: 3
2. I can’t allow to make jokes in the class.
(1) cut
(2) crack
(3) break
(4) No improvement
Solution: 2
3. Shut the window; it is fairly cold.
(1) quiet
(2) quite
(3) rather
(4) No improvement
Solution: 3
4. She is the lady who will inaugurate the exhibition.
(1) declare the exhibition open
(2) start the exhibition ,
(3) begin the exhibition
(4) No improvement
Solution: 4
5. He avoids to speak to me.
(1) to talk
(2) speaking
(3) speech
(4) No improvement
Solution: 2
6. A major,water pollutant due to the growth of large cities is the sewages.
(1) a sewage
(2) a sewages
(3) the sewage
(4) No improvement
Solution: 3
7. I have just taken my meals.
(1) I have just had my food
(2) I am done with my meals
(3) I finished my meals
(4) No improvement
Solution: 4
8. I stayed at Henry house for a week.
(1) Henry’s home
(2) Henry’s
(3) Henry home
(4) No improvement
Solution: 1
9. The warden told the boys to quickly clean their rooms.
(1) clean their rooms hastily
(2) clean their rooms quickly
(3) cleanse their rooms quickly
(4) No improvement
Solution: 2
10. I needn’t get up early tomorrow, shouldn’t I?
(1) don’t I
(2) do I
(3) need I
(4) No improvement
Solution: 2
Directions (11-17) : In the following questions, out of the four alternatives,
choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentences.
11. Something that is difficult to understand
(1) incomplete
(2) inconclusive
(3) inconceivable
(4) incomprehensible
Solution: 4
12. That which is arranged by conferring or discussing
(1) meeting
(2) seminar
(3) debate
(4) negotiation
Solution: 2
13. A mournful poem or a song
(1) comedy
(2) tragedy
(3) elegy
(4) ode
Solution: 3
14. An image without objective reality
(1) shadow
(2) utopia
(3) sensation
(4) hallucination
Solution: 4
15. The branch of medical science which deals with the problems of the old
(1) oncology
(2) obstetrics
(3) paediatrics
(4) geriatrics
Solution: 4
16. A child secretly changed for another in infancy
(1) nipper
(2) changeling
(3) tiddler
(4) tyke
Solution: 2
17. One who suffers for one’s faith
(1) prophet
(2) mystic
(3) seer
(4) martyr
Solution: 4
Directions (18-19) : In the following questions, four words are given in each
question, out of which only one word is correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt
word as your answer.
18. (1) Diploreable
(2) Deploreable
(3) Deplorable
(4) Diplorable
Solution: 3
19. (1) Surreptious
(2) Surreptitious
(3) Surreptitious
(4) Surrepititious
Solution: 2
Directions (20-24) : In the following questions, read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
PASSAGE
STEM :
Half a century ago, a person was far More likely to die from heart disease. Now,
cancer is the No. 1 cause of death. Troubling as this sounds, the comparison is
unfair. Cancer is, ,by far the harder problem a condition deeply ingrained in the
nature of multicellular life. Given these obstacles, cancer researchers are fighting
and even winning smaller battles : reducing the death toll from childhood cancers
and preventing and sometimes even curing cancers that strike people in their
prime. But when it comes to diseases of the elderly, there can be no decisive
victory.
The diseases that one killed earlier in life bubonic plague, smallpox, influenza,
tuberculosis were easier obstacles. Each had a precise cause that could be
confronted. The toll of heart diseases has been pushed into the future, with diet,
exercise and medicine that help control blood pressure and cholesterol. Because of
these interventions people between 55 and 84 are increasingly more likely to die
from cancer than from heart disease.
20. The author believes that heart disease is no longer a leading killer disease because
(1) people between the ages of 55 to 84 are not affected by it.
(2) the factors that lead to heart disease do not exist any longer.
(3) the factors that lead to heart disease have been brought under control through
medical intervention.
(4) people live a healthier and fulfilling life today.
Solution: 3
21. Which of the following statements is UNTRUE (with reference to the given
passage)?
(1) Killer diseases like the plague were easier to deal with compared to cancer.
(2) Cancer researchers have managed to reduce the number of deaths among
children suffering from cancer.
(3) The greatest problem faced by cancer researchers is in the complex condition
and nature of multicellular life.
(4) Cancer researchers have achieved the greatest victory by containing this
disease among the elderly.
Solution: 4
22. “The toll of heart disease has been pushed into the future” means that
(1) There is less chance for people to die of cancer in the present moment.
(2) The number of people affected by heart disease has increased.
(3) The number of people killed by heart disease will increase in future.
(4) People suffering from heart disease today are less likely to die from it
immediately.
Solution: 4
23. “Cancer is by far the harder problem“. (Improve the sentence)
(1) a toughter problem
(2) a more difficult problem
(3) a firmer problem
(4) the most complex problem
Solution: 2
24. According to the writer, why is cancer more difficult to deal with than heart
disease?
(1) Because more people lost their lives to heart diseases 50 years ago.
(2) Cancer does not have a precise cause and is more complex in nature.
(3) Cancer defies detection at an early stage and therefore is not curable.
(4) Fewer people suffer from heart disease than cancer.
Solution: 2
Directions (25-29) : In the following questions, read the passage carefully and
choose the best answer to each question out of the four alternatives.
PASSAGE
STEM:
It is strange that, according to his position in life, an extravagant man is admired or
despised. A successful businessman does nothing to increase his popularity by
being careful with his money. He is expected to display his success, to have a smart
car, an expensive life, and to be lavish with his hospitality. If he is not so, he is
considered mean and his reputation in business may even suffer in consequence.
The paradox remains that if he had not been careful with his money in the first
place, he would never have achieved his present wealth. Among the two income
groups, a different set of values exists. The young clerk who makes his wife a
present of a new dress when he hadn’t paid his house rent, is condemned as
extravagant. Carefulness’with money to the point of meanness is applauded as a
virtue. Nothing in his life is considered more worthy than paying his bills. The ideal
wife for such a man separates her housekeeping money into joyless little piles, and
she is able to face the milkman with equanimity and never knows the guilt of
buying something she can’t really afford.
25. The phrase ‘lavish with his hospitality’ here means :
(1) miserliness in dealing with his friends.
(2) considerateness in spending on guests and strang-
(3) extravagance in entertaining guests.
(4) Indifference in treating his friends and relatives.
Solution: 3
26. We understand from the passage that
(1) all mean people are wealthy.
(2) wealthy people are invariably successful
(3) carefulness generally leads to failure.
(4) being thrifty may lead to success.
Solution: 4
27. How does the housewife, according to the writer, feel when she saves money?
(1) She feels she needs to be thrifty
(2) Wishes life is less burdensome
(3) She is troubled by a sense of guilt
(4) Wishes she could sometimes be extravagant
Solution: 2
28. The statement ‘she is able to face the milkman with equanimity’ implies that
(1) She is not upset as she has been paying the milkman his dues regularly.
(2) She loses her nerve at the sight of the milkman who always demands his dues.
(3) She manages to keep cool when she confronts the milkman
(4) She remains composed and confident as she knows that she can handle the
milkman.
Solution: 1
29. In the opinion of the writer, a successful businessman
(1) is more popular if he appears to be doing nothing
(2) should not bother about his popularity.
(3) must be extravagant before achieving success.
(4) is expected to have expensive taste.
Solution: 2
Directions (30-34) In the following questions, some parts of the sentences have
errors and some are correct. Find out which part of a sentence has an error. The
number of that part is the answer. If a sentence is free from error, your answer is
(4) i.e. No error.
30. After he was caught cheating he was disqualified to appear at the examination.
(1) After he was caught cheating
(2) he was disqualified
(3) to appear at the examination
(4) No error
Solution: 3
31. She stopped singing as soon as the telephone rings from across the hall.
(1) She stopped singing
(2) as soon as the telephone
(3) rings from across the hall
(4) No error
Solution: 3
32. The old curtains were torn and they flapped in the light breeze.
(1) The old curtains were torn
(2) and they flapped
(3) in the light breeze
(4) No error
Solution: 4
33. I do not know who you consider to be the best dancer.
(1) I do not know
(2) who you consider
(3) to be the best dancer
(4) No error
Solution: 3
34. So hoarse he was that he could not make the speech.
(1) So hoarse he was
(2) that he could not make
(3) the speech
(4) No error
Solution: 1
Directions (35-39) : In the following questions, sentences are given with blanks
to be filled in with an appropriate word(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each
question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four as your answer.
35. The crop will fail, ……………….it rains this week.
(1) unless
(2) until
(3) till
(4) when
Solution: 2
36. “She decided to………………… as the competition was quite stiff.”
(1) stand out
(2) leave
(3) get out
(4) stand down
Solution: 4
37. If she were selected, she……………. a good secretary.
(1) would make
(2) will .make
(3) can make
(4) would have made
Solution: 1
38. He worked …………of his ability.
(1) at the best
(2) with the best
(3) in the best
(4) to the best
Solution: 4
39. The Chief Mifiister asked her officers to…………. the process of procuring foodTor
the poor from the market.
(1) speed up
(2) expedite
(3) hasten
(4) do fast
Solution: 2
Directions (40-42) : In the following questions, out of the four alternatives,
choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.
40. Bumptious
(1) Uncouth
(2) Conceited
(3) Rude
(4) Shrewd
Solution: 2
41. Ostracize
(1) Evacuate
(2) Excavate
(3) Expel
(4) Extradite
Solution: 3
42. Bane
(1) Challenge
(2) Curse
(3) Danger
(4) Threat
Solution: 2
Directions (43-45) : In the following questions, choose the word opposite in
meaning to the given word.
43. Arogant
(1) Favourable
(2) Illiterate
(3) Kind
(4) Humble
Solution: 2
44. Impoverished
(1) Pure
(2) Affiuent
(3) Important
(4) Efficient
Solution: 2
45. Affirmed
(1) Contradicted
(2) Opposed
(3) Disputed
(4) Denied
Solution: 4
Directions (46-50) : In each of the following questions, four alternatives are
given for the Idiom/ Phrase printed in bold in the sentence. Choose the
alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase as your answer.
46. Anand is a nice guy, but sometimes he really gets on my nerves.
(1) makes me nervous
(2) shakes my self-confidence
(3) annoys me
(4) makes me uncomfortable
Solution: 3
47. As a student, you should catch time by the forelock.
(1) speed up
(2) set up clock back
(3) slow down
(4) seize opportunity
Solution: 4
48. Receiving his first award was a shot in the arm for him.
(1) something that gives encouragement
(2) something that is painful
(3) something that needs attention
(4) something done with a purpose
Solution: 1
49. It is sometimes wiser to rely on horse sense than on the advice of colleagues.
(1) advice of parents
(2) advice of teachers
(3) advice of colleagues
(4) basic common sense
Solution: 4
50. Nehru, the first Prime Minister of India, was a man of letters.
(1) a great letter-writer
(2) a great politician
(3) a literary person
(4) a great patriot
Solution: 3
GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING
Directions (1-2) : In each of the following quesuor.s. a series is given, with one tern-.
missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series.
1. 325, 259. 204, 160, 127, 105, ?
(1) 94
(2) 96
(3) 98
(4) 100
Solution:1
2. AZBY, CXDW, EVFU, ?
(1) SHTG
(2) GXHW
(3) GTHS
(4) STHO
Solution:3
(3)
3. The heights of three towers are in the ratio 5 : 6 : 7. If a spider takes 15 minutes to
climb the smallest tower, how much time will it take to climb the highest one?
(1) 15 minutes
(2) 18 minutes
(3) 21 minutes
(4) 54 minutes
Solution:3
4. Ramesh has brother Suresh. Ramesh is the son of Copal. Govind is Gopal’s father.
How is Suresh related to Govind?
(1) Son
(2) Brother
(3) Grandson
(4) Grandfather
Solution:3
5. From the given alternative words, select the word which cannot be formed using
the letters of the given word : ADVERTISEMENT
(1) ADVISE
(2) DIVERSE
(3) TIME
(4) REVERSE
Solution:4
6. Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a circle.
C is to the left of D, F is between A and E, and E is between F and D. Who is to the
left of F?
(1) A
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E
Solution:4
(4)
7. Given below are the jumbled letters of a word and their corresponding numbers.
Select the combination of numbers that makes a meaningful word.
CNAS PH I
1 2 3 4 5 6 7
(1) 5742613
(2) 2375416
(3) 4572316
(4) 7234516
Solution:3
8. If BROAD means 19812, CLOCK means
(1) 68262
(2) 68622
(3) 26826
(4) 37836
Solution:3
9. TAP is SZO, then FREEZE is
(1) EQDFYG
(2) EQDDYD
(3) ESDFYF
(4) GQFDYF
Solution:2
10. Identify the single letter, which when removed from the following words form new
words.
MINK, LAMP, TEAM, WARM
(1) R
(2) A
(3) L
(4) M
Solution:4
11. If 876 =12, 864 = 81, 895 = 22, what is 824 = ?
(1) 14
(2) 64
(3) 48
(4) 41
Solution:4
12. If + stands for ∗; – stands for
#; × stands for @ and ÷ stands for %, then which of the following statements is
correct?
(1) 256% 16 @ 5 # 28 = 52
(2) 256 # 16 % 5 # 28 = 120
(3) 256 @ 5 % 16 ∗ 28 = 408
(4) 256 # 16 @ 5 % 28 = 80
Solution:1
13. Choose the appropriate combination of signs to solve the equation.
(16 + 18) * (21-11) * 32 * 8
(1) – × =
(2) – = –
(3) + = –
(4) ÷ – =
Solution:2
14. If MOON is coded as -2, STAR will be coded as
(1) -2
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) -3
Solution:4
Directions (15-18) : In each of the following questions, select the missing
number from the given responses.
15.
(1) 240
(2) 246
(3) 250
(4) 256
Solution:4
16.
(1) 29
(2) 39
(3) 31
(4) 41
Solution:2
17.
(1) 34
(2) 54
(3) 44
(4) 64
Solution:2
18.
(1) 24
(2) 100
(3) 144
(4) 64
29
Solution:3
19. A man starts from a point and moves 3 km North, then turns to West and goes 2
km. He turns North and walks 1 km and then moves 5 km towards East. How far is
he from the starting point?
(1) 11 km.
(2) 10 km.
(3) 8 km.
(4) 5 km.
Solution:4
(4)
20. Abhay travelled 9 km Northwards, turned left and travelled 5 km, then turned left
again and travelled 9 km. How far is Abhay from the starting point?
(1) 5 km.
(2) 9 km.
(3) 4 km.
(4) 14 km.
Solution:1
Directions (21-22) : In each of the following questions, one or two statements is
given followed by four/two conclusions, I, II, III and IV. You have to consider the
statements to be true, even if it seems to be at variance from commonly known
facts. You are to decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from
the given statements. Indicate your answer.
21. Statements :
Some boys are men.
No man is black.
Conclusions :
I. Some boys are not black.
II. Some men are boys.
(1) Only Conclusion I follows.
(2) Only Conclusion II follows.
(3) Either I or II follows.
(4) Neither I nor II follows.
Solution: *
22. Statements :
All scientists working in America are talented.
Some are Indians.
Conclusions :
I. None of the Indian scientists is talented.
II. Some talented Indian scientists have migrated.
III. All talented scientists are in America.
IV. Some Indian scientists are talented.
(1) Only Conclusion I follows.
(2) Only Conclusion II follows.
(3) Only Conclusion III follows
(4) Conclusions II and IV follow.
Solution:4
Directions (23-28) : In each of the following questions, select the related
word/letters/number from the given alternatives.
23. Book : Paper : : Bread : ?
(1) Flour
(2) Biscuit
(3) Cake
(4) Butter
Solution:1
24. QDXM : SFYN : : UIOZ : ?
(1) PAQM
(2) LPWA
(3) QNLA
(4) WKPA
Solution:4
(4)
25. BAD : DDH : : CUT : ?
(1) DCV
(2) DDX
(3) ECW
(4) EXX
Solution:4
26. 4 : 64 : : 2 : ?
(1) 16
(2) 8
(3) 22
(4) 12
Solution:2
27. 49 : 56 : : 36 : ?
(1) 52
(2) 44
(3) 42
(4) 43
Solution:3
28. Hot : Cold : : ?
(1) Summer : Sun
(2) Germs : Disease
(3) Light : Dark
(4) Thin : Big
Solution:3
Directions (29-34) : In each of the following questions, find the odd
word/letters/number pair from the given alternatives.
29. (1) QRP
(2) RUQ
(3) NEM
(4) MAL
Solution:1
30. (1) ACEG
(2) HJLN
(3) MNOL
(4) TVXZ
Solution:3
(3)
31. (1) Agitate
(2) Affirm
(3) Attack
(4) Affect
Solution:2
32. (1) 35 – 66
(2) 71 – 94
(3) 24 – 57
(4) 56 – 70
Solution:4
33. (1) 125
(2) 343
(3) 516
(4) 729
Solution:3
34. (1) Perimeter
(2) Area
(3) Density
(4) Distance
Solution:3
Directions (35-36) : In each the following questions, which one of the given
responses would be a meaningful order of the following?
35. 1. Book
2. Pulp
3. Timber
4. Jungle (Forest)
5. Paper
(1) 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
(2) 2, 5, 1, 4, 3
(3) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1
(4) 5, 4, 3, 1, 2
Solution:3
36. 1. Pollution
2. Population
3. Death
4. Disease
(1) 2, 3, 4, 1
(2) 3, 4, 2, 1
(3) 2, 1, 4, 3
(4) 1, 2, 3, 4
Solution:3
37. Which number is wrong in the given series?
12439, 23549, 34659, 45769, 57689
(1) 34659
(2) 23549
(3) 57689
(4) 12439
Solution:3
38. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the gaps in the given letter
series shall complete it? l_b_ub_ubt_blu_tub
(1) ubtlu
(2) utlub
(3) tulbu
(4) butlu
Solution:2
39. Identify the number at the bottom when the top is 5 in a dice.
(1) 2
(2) 3
(4) 4
(4) 6
Solution:1
40. Identify the answer figure from which the pieces given in the question figure have
been cut.
Question Figure :
Answer Figures :
Solution:3
41. Which of the following figures will be formed when the figure given in the question
is folded?
Question Figure :
Answer Figures :
Solution:1
42. In the following diagram, the square represents college students, the,triangle
represents artists, the parallelogram represents singers. Which region best
represents college students who are artists as well as singers?
(1) G
(2) C
(3) E
(4) B
Solution:2
43. The diagram represents the number of students studying different subjects. What
is the number of students who study History and Biology?
(1) 4
(2) 16
(3) 20
(4) 26
Solution:3
44. The diagram given below shows number of students who got distinction in three
subjects out of 500 students. What is the percentage of students who got
distinction in all subjects?
(1) 10.2
(2) 8
(3) 10
(4) 2.2
Solution:4
Directions (45-46) : In the following questions, which answer figure will
complete the pattern in the question figure?
45. Question Figure :
Answer Figures :
Solution:2
46. Question Figure :
Answer Figures :
Solution:3
47. From the given answer figures, select, the one in which the question figure is
hidden embedded.
Question Figure :
Answer Figures :
Solution:3
48. A piece of paper is folded and cut as shown below in the question figure. From the
given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when opened.
Question Figures :
Answer Figures :
Solution:2
49. If a mirror is placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the right
image of the given figure?
Question Figure :
Answer Figures :
Solution:2
50. A word is represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the
alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are represented by two
classes of alphabets as in two matrices given below. The columns and rows of
Matrix I are numbered from 0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to
9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next by its
column, e.g., ‘A’ can be represented by 01, 14 etc. and T can be represented by 55,
68 etc. Similarly, you have to identify the set for the word PERSON’.
(1) 66, 03, 10, 33, 56, 03
(2) 96, 12, 32, 40, 77, 34
(3) 75, 20, 43, 04, 98, 42
(4) 87, 11, 22, 24, 67, 04
Solution:4
QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE
1. A train travels 500 m in first minute. In the next 4 minutes, it travels in each
minute 125 m more than that in the previous minute. The average speed per hour
of the train during those 5 minutes will be
(1) 30 km/hr
(2) 45 km/hr
(3) 50 km/hr
(4) 55 km/hr
Solution:2
2. If ratio of principal and simple interest for 1 year is 25 : 1, then the rate of interest
is
(1) 4%
(2) 25%
(3) 5%
(4) 20%
Solution:1
3. If a man running at 15 kmph crosses a bridge in 5 minutes, the length of the bridge
is
(1) 1000 metres
(2) 500 metres
(3) 750 metres
(4) 1250 metres
Solution:4
4.
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3
Solution:1
5.
(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 3
Solution:1
6.
(1) 1
(2) 0
(3) 2
(4) 1/2
Solution:1
7.
Solution:3
8. The value of
(1) 1
(2) 0
(3) 2
(4) √2
Solution:3
9.
Solution:4
10. A point in the 4th quadrant is 6 unit away from x-axis and 7 unit away from yaxis.
The point is at
(1) (7, -6)
(2) (-7, 6)
(3) (-6, -7)
(4) (-6, 7)
Solution:1
(1)
11. PQRST is a cyclic pentagon and PT is a diameter, then LPQR + ZRST is equal to
(1) 180°
(2) 270°
(3) 216°
(4) 144°
Solution:
12.
(1) 98
(2) 1000
(3) 5
(4) 970
Solution:4
13. The distance between the centres of the two circles of radii r, and r2 is d. They will
touch each other internally if
(1) d = r or r
(2) d = r + r
(3) d = r – r
(4) d = √ r r
Solution:3
(3)
14. ΔABC is an isosceles triangle with AB = AC = 10 cm, AD = 8 cm is the median on
BC from A. The length of BC is
(1) 8 cm
(2) 12 cm
(3) 10 cm
(4) 6 cm
Solution:2
15. A point Q is 13 crn from the centre of a circle. The length of the tangent drawn
from Q to a circle is 12 cm. The distance of Q from the nearest point of the circle is
(1) 7 cm
(2) 8 cm
(3) 5 cm
(4) 12 cm
Solution:2
16. ΔABC is a right angled triangle with AB = 6 cm, AC = 8 cm, ∠BAC = 90′. Then the
radius of the incircle is
(1) 4 cm.
(2) 2 cm.
(3) 6 cm.
(4) 3 cm.
Solution:2
17. In a circle with centre 0, AB and CD are two diameters perpendicular to each
other. The length of chord AC is
Solution:4
18. ΔABC is similar to ΔDEF. The ratio of their perimeters is 4 : 1. The ratio of their
areas is
(1) 4 : 1
(2) 16 : 1
(3) 8 : 1
(4) 8√2 : 1
Solution:2
19. The angle between the minute hand and hour hand of a clock when the time is 7:20
is equal to
(1) 45°
(2) 90°
(3) 100°
(4) 120°
Solution:3
20. The value of cos 30° + sin 60° + tan 45° 2 2 2 + sec260° + cos0° is
Solution:4
21. If a 48 m tall building has a shadow of 48√3 m., then the angle of elevation of the
sun is
(1) 15°
(2) 60°
(3) 45°
(4) 30°
Solution:4
22. If cos x + cos x = 1, then sin x + 2 sin x + sin x is equal to
(1) 0
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1
Solution:4
23. O is the circumcentre of the triangle ABC and ∠BAC = 85°, ∠BCA = 75°, then the
value of ∠OAC is
(1) 55°
(2) 150°
(3) 20°
(4) 70°
Solution:4
2 8 6 4
24. If x= p cosec θ and y= q cot θ, then the value of
(1) sin θ
(2) tanθ
(3) 1
(4) 0
Solution:3
25. From an aeroplane just over a straight road, the angles of depression of two
consecutive kilometre stones situated at opposite sides of the aeroplane were
found to be 60° and 30° respectively. The height (in km) of the aeroplane from the
road at that instant was
(Given √3 = 1.732)
(1) 0.433
(2) 8.66
(3) 4.33
(4) 0.866
Solution:4
(4)
26. In ΔABC, ∠C = 90° and AB = c, BC = a, CA = b; then the value of (cosec B – cos A) is
Solution:3
27.
(1) 0.4
(2) 0.02
(3) 0.04
(4) 0.2
Solution:4
28. If 1 man or 2 women or 3 boys can do a piece of work in 44 days, then the same
piece of work will be done by 1 man, 1 woman and 1 boy in
(1) 21 days
(2) 24 days
(3) 26 days
(4) 33 days
Solution:2
29. The digit in the unit place in the square root of 66049 is
(1) 3
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 2
Solution:2
30. 8 workers can build a wall 18 m long, 2 m broad and 12 m high in 10 days, working
9 hours a day. Find how many workers will be able to build a wall 32 m long, 3 m
broad and 9 m high in 8 days working 6 hours a day ?
(1) 16
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4) 10
Solution:3
(3)
31. A leak in the bottom of a tank can empty the full tank in 6 hours. An inlet pipe fills
water at the rate of 4 litres a minute. When the tank is full, the inlet is opened and
due to the leak the tank is empty in 8 hours. Find the capacity of the tank.
(1) 5760 litres
(2) 96 litres
(3) 10 litres
(4) 24 litres
Solution:1
32. The percentage increase in the area of a rectangle, if each of its sides is increased
by 20% is equal to
(1) 32%
(2) 34%
(3) 42%
(4) 44%
Solution:4
33. The paint in a certain container is sufficient to paint an area equal to 9.375 m .
How many bricks measuring 22.5 cm by 10 cm by 7.5 cm can be painted out of this
container?
(1) 200
(2) 1000
(3) 10
(4) 100
Solution:4
34. The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangular park is 3 : 2. If a
man cycling along the boundary of the park at the speed of 12 kmph completes one
round in 8 minutes, then the area of the park is equal to
(1) 152600 m
(2) 153500 m
(3) 153600 m
(4) 153800m
Solution:3
35. A company showroom gives a discount of 20% on the second grade shoes and a
further discount of 15% on shareholder’s coupon. The total discount, a coupon
holder will get is
(1) 32%
(2) 36%
(3) 35%
(4) 38%
Solution:1
36. 20% profit is made when a discount of 20% is given on the marked price. When the
discount is 30% profit will be
(1) 4%
(2) 5%
(3) 6%
(4) 7.5%
Solution:2
37. A dealer buys a table listed at Rs. 1,500 and gets successive discounts of 20% and
10%. He spends Rs. 20 on transportation and sells it at a profit of 20%. Find the
selling price of the table.
(1) Rs. 1,420
(2) Rs. 1,300
(3) Rs. 1,320
(4) Rs. 1,380
Solution:3
38. Three utensils contain equal quantity of mixtures of milk and water in the ratio 6:
1, 5: 2 and 3: 1 respectively. If all the solutions are mixed together, the ratio of
milk and water in the final mixture Is
(1) 65 : 28
(2) 65 : 19
(3) 19 : 65
(4) 19 : 28
Solution:2
39. The average of 6 consecutive natural numbers is K. If the next two natural
numbers are also included, how much more than K will the average of these 8
numbers be?
(1) 1.3
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 1.8
Solution:2
40. The incomes of A and B are in the ratio 3 : 2 and their expenditures are in the ratio
5 3. If each saves Rs. 1000, then A’s income is
(1) Rs. 6000
(2) Rs. 4000
(3) Rs. 2000
(4) Rs. 5000
Solution:1
41. If the cost price of 10 articles equals selling price of 9 articles, the gain or loss
percent will be
Solution:4
42. The price of an item was increased by 10%. This reduced the monthly total sales
by 20%. The overall effect on the value of monthly sales is a
(1) 10% increase
(2) 10% decrease
(3) 12% increase
(4) 12% decrease
Solution:4
43. The mean of 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 , 5 , 6 , 7 is
(1) 20
(2) 112
(3) 56
(4) 28
Solution:2
Directions (44-47): Study the following bar diagram carefully and answer the
four questions.
Production of buses of company A and company B over the given years.
44. In which year for the company A the percentage increase of production of buses
with respect to the previous year is maximum?
(1) 2010
(2) 2012
(3) 2011
(4) 2013
Solution:2
45. The average production (in thousand) of the company B over the years 2009,
2011, 2012 is
(1) 87.33
(2) 80.67
(3) 90.33
(4) 84
Solution:1
46. The average production (in thousand) of company A over the years 2010, 2011,
2012, 2013 is
(1) 74
(2) 81.25
(3) 85.5
(4) 81
Solution:2
47. The ratio of the average production of company A in 2009 and 2010 to the
average production of company B in the same years is
(1) 147 : 170
(2) 81 : 95
(3) 67 ; 76
(4) 85 : 99
Solution:3
Directions (48-50) : The pie-chart shows the proposed outlay for different
sectors during a Five-Year plan of Government of India. Total outlay is Rs. 40,000
crores. By reading the pie-chart answer the following three questions.
48. What is the proposed outlay for Education?
(1) Rs. 6000 crores
(2) Rs. 8000 crores
(3) Rs. 9000 crores
(4) Rs. 7000 crores
Solution:2
49. If the proposed outlay of Irrigation is x% of the proposed outlay of Agriculture,
then xis equal to
(1) 50%
(2) 15%
(3) 25%
(4) 75%
Solution:1
50. What is the ratio between the proposed outlay of Irrigation and Communication?
(1) 9 : 8
(2) 3 : 2
(3) 9 : 5
(4) 6 : 5
Solution:4
